Sir, - Why is the divorce and remarriage of Prince Charles such a problem for the Church of England in the late 20th century, when the Church of England exists in the first instance because of the divorce and remarriage of Henry VIII in the 16th century?
In 1533, Thomas Cromwell initiated legislation that made the "English Church", under Henry VIII's supreme leadership, independent of Rome. Henry VIII is Prince Charles's predecessor, so why the apparent inconsistency, as articulated in Australia by Dr Carey, Archbishop of Canterbury? - Yours, etc.,
Thomas Downey,
Bessbrook, Co Armagh